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Exam Code: 312-50v9 Free download

Exam Name: Certified Ethical Hacker v9 Exam

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NO.1 Which of these options is the most secure procedure for strong backup tapes?
A. In a cool dry environment
B. On a different floor in the same building
C. Inside the data center for faster retrieval in afireproof safe
D. In a climate controlled facility offsite
Answer: D

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NO.2 In Risk Management, how is the term "likelihood" related to the concept of "threat?"
A. Likelihood is a possible threat-source that may exploit a vulnerability.
B. Likelihood is the likely source of a threat that could exploit a vulnerability.
C. Likelihood is the probability that a vulnerability is a threat-source.
D. Likelihood is the probability that a threat-source will exploit a vulnerability.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Perspective clients wantto see sample reports from previous penetration tests. What should
you do next?
A. Share full reports, with redacted.
B. Decline but, provide references.
C. Share reports, after NDA is signed.
D. Share full reports, not redacted.
Answer: A

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NO.4 In 2007, this wireless security algorithm was rendered useless by capturing packets and
discovering the passkey in a matter of seconds. This security flaw led to a network invasion of TJ
Maxx and data theft through a technique known wardriving.
Which algorithm is this referring to?
A. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
B. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TRIP)
C. Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access 2(WPA2)
Answer: A

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NO.5 Port scanning can be used as part of a technical assessment to determine network
vulnerabilities. The TCP XMAS scan is used to identify listening port on the targeted system.
If a scanned port is open, what happens?
A. The port will send an ACK.
B. The port will send a SYN.
C. The port will send an RST.
D. The port will ignore the packets.
Answer: D

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NO.6 > NMAP -sn 192.168.11.200-215
The NMAP command above performs which of the following?
A. A trace sweep
B. A ping scan
C. A port scan
D. An operating system detect
Answer: B

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NO.7 An attacker has installed a RAT on a host. The attacker wants to ensure that when a user
attempts to go to www.MyPersonalBank.com, that the user is directed to a phishing site.
Which file does the attacker needto modify?
A. Networks
B. Sudoers
C. Boot.ini
D. Hosts
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which method of password cracking takes the most time and effect?
A. Rainbow Tables
B. Directory attack
C. Bruce force
D. Shoulder surfing
Answer: C

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NO.9 Session splicing is an IDS evasiontechnique in which an attacker delivers data in multiple,
smallsized packets to the target computer, making it very difficult for an IDS to detect the attack
signatures.
Which tool can used to perform session splicing attacks?
A. Hydra
B. Burp
C. Whisker
D. Tcpsplice
Answer: C

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NO.10 This tool is an 802.11 WEP and WPA-PSK keys cracking program that can recover keys once
enough data packets have been captured. It implements the standard FMS attach along with some
optimizations like Korek attacks, as well as the PTW attack, thus making the attack much faster
compared to other WEP cracking tools.
Which of the following tools is being described?
A. Airguard
B. WLAN-crack
C. Wificracker
D. Aircrack-ng
Answer: D

NO.11 Your company performs penetration tests and security assessments for small and medium-sized
business in the local area. During a routine security assessment, you discover information that
suggests your client is involved with human trafficking.
What should you do?
A. Copy the data to removable media and keep it in case you need it.
B. Confront theclient on a respectful manner and ask her about the data.
C. Ignore the data and continue the assessment until completed as agreed.
D. Immediately stop work and contact the proper legal authorities.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is one of the most effective ways to prevent Cross-site Scripting (XSS)
flaws in software applications?
A. Validate and escape all information sent over to a server
B. Use digital certificates to authenticate a server prior to sending data
C. Use security policies and procedures to define and implement proper security settings
D. Verity access right before allowing access to protected information and UI controls
Answer: D

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NO.1 The Accounts Payable (AP) department is using Multi-functional Devices (MFD) to scan
invoices and OCR to automate data entry. They are also imprinting a bar code on the invoices. After
scanning, they file the invoices away in boxes by month. What can be concluded from this
information?
A. A records storage management process is in place.
B. An imaging pilot project is in place.
C. Retention is being managed.
D. Bar codes are used to track retention.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is the MOST important item when presenting a solution design to a
customer for review?
A. Providing great customer references
B. Providing food and drink for comfort
C. Showing how the solution meets business requirements
D. Detailing pricing of the solution
Answer: C

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NO.3 A member of the implementation team discovers that the software vendor is issuing a new
version. Which one of the following should be done?
A. Inform the business sponsors
B. Research the new product to understand its features
C. Upgrade after the project completion date
D. Notify the Project Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 The consultant is flow charting the workflow of an Accounts Payable (AP) department. Invoices
in the AP department are logged and then forwarded to the department that originated the order.
What should the consultant be sure to do?
A. Speak with Human Resources about the hiring practices for personnel in the AP department
B. Interview the department that originated the order; document what they do internally with the
invoice and how they hand it off to the AP
C. Contact the vendor who issued the invoice to see what kind of workflow they need to have
D. Interview the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to get their perspective on this workflow and then tie
this feedback into the charting processInterview the department that originated the order; document
what they do internally with the invoice and how they hand it off to the AP
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company needs to capture 2,000 outgoing e-mails per month. The e-mails are 30 KB each in
size. What is the annual storage space required?
A. 590 MB
B. 59 MB
C. 354 MB
D. 703 MB
Answer: D

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NO.6 A local library keeps many important documents relating to the historical landmarks in town.
The documents consist of blueprints, photographs, and newspaper articles. The library wants to
capture the documents electronically so they can be viewed online. The first concern of the person
capturing the documents would be the:
A. color of the documents.
B. number of file cabinets.
C. age and physical condition of the documents.
D. volume of the documents on file.
Answer: C

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NO.7 When a consultant recommends a scanner to a client, what percentage of the scanned pages
need to be
two-sided in order to cost justify a duplex scanner?
A. 30-40%
B. 70-80%
C. 10-20%
D. 50-60%
Answer: C

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NO.8 A mainframe-based company would like to make bills available online while continuing to mail
them to the customer. Customers, as well as customer service personnel, will view these bills. What
type of solution is MOST appropriate?
A. High volume scan subsystem
B. COLD/Enterprise Report Management (ERM)
C. Web Content Management System (WCMS)
D. Document Management System (DMS)
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is a disadvantage of scanning all images at the highest resolution possible?
A. Higher expense
B. Small file size
C. Lower quality
D. Compatibility issues
Answer: A

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NO.10 A trusted third party that issues digital certificates for documents containing digital signatures
would be referred to as:
A. An Organization Registration Authority
B. INTERNIC
C. A Certificate Authority
D. A Certificate Standards Committee
Answer: C

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NO.11 A large volume of surveys are distributed, returned, and scanned. These surveys have text
boxes and
check boxes. Which is the best technology for capturing these documents, indexing them, and
extracting the data?
A. OCR/ICR
B. Document Imaging
C. Workflow
D. Forms processing
Answer: C

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NO.12 A customer has a mixed OS environment and they wish to consolidate all their documents
onto a server running one OS. Which of the following solutions would be the most cost effective, and
allow all the users to access the documents on the server?
A. A browser-based client
B. Migrate to the same OS that runs on the server
C. Provide dialup access to the server from all clients
D. Install dual boot clients
Answer: A

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NO.1 A technician needs to install a clean Windows OS on several laptops in the office. The office is
running a 100Base-T
network. The owner would like the installatons completed as soon as possible. Which of the following
installaton
methods should the technician use?
A. FireWire External Hard Drive
B. DVD-ROM
C. USB 3.0 Flash Drive
D. PXE-based Network Installaton
Answer: C

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NO.2 A turnstle is an example of which of the following forms of physical security?
A. Biometrics
B. Cipher lock
C. Mantrap
D. Entry control roster
Answer: C

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NO.3 A technician is notcing extremely slow performance on a computer and would like to see what
applicaton is
consuming resources. Which of the following tools should the technician use to view the system
performance?
A. Event Viewer
B. msconfig
C. netmon
D. Task Manager
Answer: D

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NO.4 A user has an LCD and a CRT monitor attached to their workstaton. The colors are slightly off
on the CRT but not the
LCD. Which of the following controls should be used in troubleshootng?
A. Contrast
B. Geometry
C. Brightness
D. Degauss
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following file system types is used primarily for optcal media?
A. FAT32
B. HPFS
C. CDFS
D. NTFS
Answer: C

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NO.6 A laser printer is producing completely blank sheets. Which of the following processes should
the technician check
FIRST?
A. Development
B. Transfer
C. Fusing
D. Paper handling
Answer: A

NO.7 A PC is powering on but the only actvity a technician can see is spinning fans. Which of the
following components
would MOST likely be at fault for such a conditon? (Select TWO).
A. CPU
B. Hard drive
C. Memory
D. Sound card
E. SATA controller
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 A new help desk technician receives a trouble call from a user. The issue is something the
technician has never
encountered before, and does not know where to begin troubleshootng. The FIRST course of acton is
for the
technician to:
A. ask the customer if they would mind holding for no more than two minutes to check resources.
B. tell the customer this is the first tme encountering the issue and to please be patent.
C. ask the customer to please hold while a senior technician is consulted regarding the issue.
D. tell the customer the issue needs to be escalated to a higher ter technician.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A company is looking to donate a collecton of old PCs that are no longer needed. Which of the
following data
destructon methods would be MOST secure for highly sensitve informaton?
A. Low level 7-pass random wipe
B. Simple 1-pass zero overwrite
C. High level format 10 tmes
D. Low level 3-pass random wipe
Answer: A

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NO.10 A user calls the help desk because a folder containing critcal business files is missing from the
local drive. The user is
adamant that the folder was there the previous day, and cannot understand why it is gone. The
technician views the
propertes of the parent folder and sees a back up listed on the "Prior Versions" tab. According to the
theory of
troubleshootng, which of the following is the technician's NEXT step?
A. Verify full system functonality and implement preventve measures
B. Document findings, actons and outcomes
C. Establish a theory of probable cause
D. Establish a plan of acton and implement the soluton
Answer: C

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NO.11 DRAG DROP
A technician has verified that Joe, a user, has a malware infecton on his desktop. Drag and drop the
following
malware remediaton techniques in the correct order Joe should follow to alleviate this issue.
Answer:

NO.12 A user notces the social media apps are constantly updated with the user's precise locaton. The
user is worried
about privacy and would like to keep this informaton from being broadcast online. Which of the
following features
should the user adjust in order to accomplish this?
A. Tethering
B. WiFi
C. Filtering
D. Geotracking
Answer: D

NO.13 A technician is troubleshootng a PC with multple volumes. To verify which are actve and
assigned drive letters, the
technician should use the LIST functon of which of the following commands?
A. diskpart
B. bootrec
C. extract
D. chkdsk
Answer: A

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NO.14 A user is looking for the Applicaton Data directory in their profile but cannot see it. Which of
the following Control
Panel optons would correct this?
A. User Accounts
B. Folder Optons
C. System
D. Display
Answer: B

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NO.15 A technician is installing a wireless network and wants to limit the signal available outside the
building. Which of the
following would help accomplish this?
A. Use omni-directonal antennas
B. Place directonal antennas
C. Enable MAC filtering
D. Disable SSID broadcast
Answer: B

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NO.16 A technician has decided to upgrade all users' iPhones to the latest model. Which of the
following is the FIRST thing
the technician should advise the users to do with the old phones before turning them in?
A. Go into the device settings to remove personal customizatons.
B. Back up the mobile data with a cloud backup service.
C. Factory reset the old phones to ensure the data is no longer on the device.
D. Enable remote wipe to clear all personal and corporate data.
Answer: B

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NO.17 SIMULATION
You need to configure your mobile device to send and receive electronic messages from your
company. Your mobile
device must be able to truly synchronize the message state with your desktop, so that when a
message is read on your
desktop, it is marked as read on your mobile device. These are the proper parameters:
* Email address: tech@techies.com
* Password: P@$ $w0rd
* Pop.techies.com Port: 110 Security: None
* IMAP.techies.com Port: 993 Security: SSL
* smtp.techies.com Port: 465 Security: TLS
* Company SSID: Techies
* Security: WPA2
* Passphrase: P@$$w0rd
* SSID is not broadcasted
Instructons: You are not authorized to use the Company's WLAN. The outgoing server does not
require login
credentals. When you have completed the simulaton, please select the done button to submit your
answer.
Answer:
Since we are instructed to not use the company's WLAN we only need to worry about the email
settings and ignore
the WiFi and Networks tab.
On the MAIL tab enter informaton as shown below:
That should be all that is needed.

NO.18 A user advises that a computer is displaying pop-ups when connected to the Internet. After
updatng and running
ant-malware software, the problem persists and the technician finds that two rogue processes
cannot be killed.
Which of the following should be done NEXT to contnue troubleshootng the problem?
A. Run System Restore to revert to previous state
B. Run Event Viewer to identfy the cause
C. Run Recovery Console to kill the processes
D. Run msconfig to clean boot the computer
Answer: D

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NO.1 The electromagnetic spectrum of visible light lies in the ___________ frequency range of the
spectrum.
A. 100 GHz
B. 100 PHz
C. 1 GHz
D. 10 THz
E. 1 PHz
Answer: E

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NO.2 Cementitious materials are ________ based materials.
A. Latex
B. Dry powder
C. Sand
D. Solvent
Answer: B

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NO.3 A ______ intercepts a file and stores it temporarily in queue until a peripheral device (e.g.
printer) is available.
A. Server
B. Jump drive
C. Spooler
D. Printer
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Topic 18, Wireless

NO.4 If a telecommunications grounding busbar is installed in the telecommunications room (TR)
with the identifier of 310, located on the third floor, then the telecommunications grounding busbar
should be labeled as:
A. TGB-310
B. No need to identify as there is only one per TR
C. TGB in room 310
D. TGB
E. TGB in TR 310
Answer: A

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NO.5 In an office area, a consultant needs to add the location of a fax machine to the plan. What is
the approximated floor area that a fax machine occupies?
A. 1 sq m (10 sq ft)
B. 0.2 sq m (2 sq ft)
C. 1.5 sq m (16 sq ft)
D. 0.5 sq m (5 sq ft)
E. 2 sq m (20 sq ft)
Answer: A

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NO.6 One of the advantages of using optical fiber in the backbone installation is:
A. Has better manufacturer support
B. Safer to install
C. Immunity to EMI
D. Requires less skill to install
E. More cost effective
Answer: C

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NO.7 What does ANSI/TIA 942 recommend as the MINIMUM height for overhead cable tray above
finished floor within a data center?
A. 2.14 m (7 ft)
B. 3.05 m (10 ft)
C. 3.36 m (11 ft)
D. 2.75 m (9 ft)
E. 2.44 m (8 ft)
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the International Organization for Standardization/International Electrotechnical
Commission ISO/IEC class rating for American National Standards Institute/Telecommunication
Industry Association (ANSI/TIA) Category 5e cable?
A. Class B
B. Class E
C. Class F
D. Class C
E. Class D
Answer: E

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NO.9 You are designing multi band UHF police radio and VHF fire radio systems for a municipal office.
Because of the closeness of the transmit and receive frequencies, you must ensure there is adequate
filtering and gain control of the systems. Which device will best meet the ability to separate and
control the transmit and receive signals?
A. Transceiver
B. Bidirectional amplifier
C. Unidirectional amplifier
D. Repeater
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT a primary method of transporting radio signals in an active DAS?
A. Digital sampling of the RF signal
B. Down conversion of the RF signal
C. Analog modulation of the RF signal
D. Up conversion of the RF signal
Answer: D

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NO.11 Time division multiplexing (TDM) systems are designed to transport ________ between end
point systems.
A. Only digital signals
B. Only analog signals
C. Both analog and digital signals, but only one type at a time
D. A mix of both analog and digital signals
Answer: A

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NO.12 A video camera has a coaxial cable output. The video signal is to be distributed to devices that
have balanced twisted pair inputs. The transition between these two different transmission media
can be accomplished by using a:
A. Transceiver
B. Modulator
C. Cross connect
D. Converter
E. Balun
Answer: E

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NO.13 You are designing a cabling system for a chemical plant. What type of device is needed to
prevent the spread of fire along the cable other than the barrier penetrations?
A. Fire shield
B. Fire break
C. Fire stop
D. Fire wall
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the recommended distance between ceiling mounted speakers in a hallway with
heavy traffic?
A. 6 m (20 ft)
B. 4.9 m (16 ft)
C. 3.7 m (12 ft)
D. 2.4 m (8 ft)
Answer: D

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NO.15 On a survey of one of your client's buildings, you discover that one of the TRs, housing a
considerable quantity of switching equipment, is at 25 degrees C (77 degrees F) with a relative
humidity of 59 percent. This is considered to be:
A. Normal temperature and high humidity
B. Within the normal range of temperature and humidity
C. High temperature and normal humidity
D. High temperature and high humidity
Answer: A

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The API 580 Risk Based Inspection certification exam tests the individual’s knowledge and expertise in the field of Risk Based Inspection.

• Questions on the 2016 examinations are based on API Recommended Practice 580 Risk-Based Inspection, 2nd Edition 2009.


• Questions on the 2017 examinations will be based on API Recommended Practice 580 Risk-Based Inspection, 3rd Edition 2016.

---

1. The API 580 exam is 4 hours long.


2. There are 70 questions, all multiple-choice and closed-book. Paper and reference materials are not allowed into the examinations.


3. This examination has a set passing point of 70%, or 49 correct answers.

Learn More about Exam Day

---

Additional Resources

Examination Policies & Notifications: Policies

Purchasing Authorized API Publications: API Publications Store

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Exam Name: Accredited Configuration Engineer (ACE)

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Exam Code: PCNSE6

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NO.1 Which authentication method can provide role-based administrative access to firewalls running
PAN-OS?
A. Certificate-based authentication
B. LDAP
C. Kerberos
D. RADIUS with Vendor Specific Attributes
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where can the maximum concurrent SSL VPN Tunnels be set for Vsys2 when provisioning a Palo
Alto Networks firewall for multiple virtual systems?
A. In the GUI under Network->Global Protect->Portal->Vsys2
B. In the GUI under Device->Setup->Session->Session Settings
C. In the GUI under Device->Virtual Systems->Vsys2->Resource
D. In the GUI under Network->Global Protect->Gateway->Vsys2
Answer: C

PCNSE6 Exam Prep   
Reference:
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/content/dam/paloaltonetworkscom/en_US/assets/pdf/tech-
briefs/virtual-systems.pdf page 6

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Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements

• Published: February 17, 2014
• Languages: English, Japanese
• Audiences: IT professionals
• Technology: Microsoft Office 365
• Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA

Provision Office 365 (15–20%)

Plan and implement networking and security in Office 365 (15–20%)

Manage cloud identities (15–20%)

Implement and manage identities by using DirSync (15–20%)

Implement and manage federated identities (single sign-on [SSO]) (15–20%)

Monitor and troubleshoot Office 365 availability and usage (15–20%)

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Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements

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Programming in HTML5 with JavaScript and CSS3

• Published: August 20, 2012
• Languages: English, Japanese
• Audiences: Developers
• Technology: Microsoft Visual Studio 2012
• Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSD

Implement and manipulate document structures and objects (24%)

Implement program flow (25%)

Access and secure data (26%)

Use CSS3 in applications (25%)

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Exam Code: MB2-704

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Exam Code: 70-461

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Exam Code: 98-369

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NO.1 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You may restore a Microsoft Office 365 user account within 6 months of deleting the account.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is
needed". If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. 30 days
B. No change is needed.
C. 1 year
D. 90 days
Answer: A

98-369 questions   
Explanation:
The user's data is stored for 30 days. When you restore the work or school account within the 30
days, the user account and all associated data are restored.
Reference: https://support.office.com/en-nz/article/Delete-or-restore-users-d5155593-3bac4d8d-
9d8b-f4513a81479e

NO.2 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You are an IT intern assigned to implement Microsoft Office 365 and Microsoft Intune.
You have not created any Intune policies. You want to control endpoint protection, software updates,
and a policy check schedule for a group of devices.
You must deploy a mobile device security policy template.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select "No change is
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A. Microsoft Intune Agent Settings
B. Microsoft Intune Center Settings
C. Windows Firewall Settings
D. No change is needed.
Answer: D

98-369 Bootcamp   
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Microsoft Intune Policies are groups of settings that control features on mobile devices and
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Reference: Use policies to manage computers and mobile devices with Microsoft Intune
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/dn743712.aspx

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Exam Name: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases

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Exam Name: Universal Windows Platform - App Architecture and UX/UI (beta)

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NO.1 HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You have a failover cluster
named Cluster1
that contains two nodes named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and
have the Hyper-V
server role installed.
You plan to create two virtual machines that will run an application named App1. App1 will store data
on a virtual
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The network contains the following shared folders:
An SMB file share named Share1 that is hosted on a Scale-Out File Server.
An SMB file share named Share2 that is hosted on a standalone file server.
An NFS share named Share3 that is hosted on a standalone file server.
You need to ensure that both virtual machines can use App1data.vhdx simultaneously.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate configurations in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Answer:

NO.2 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You plan to deploy 200 Hyper-V hosts by using Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine
Manager (VMM)
Service Pack 1 (SP1).
You add a PXE server to the fabric.
You need to identify which objects must be added to the VMM library for the planned deployment.
What should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. A host profile
B. A service template
C. A generalized image
D. A hardware profile
E. A capability profile
Answer: A,C

70-980 test answers   
After installing a PXE server, we build a deployment image from which we will deploy new Hyper-V
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profile.
Reference:
System Center Virtual Machine Manager: Virtual machine management simplified
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/jj884468.aspx

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JNCIS-ENT Exam Objectives (Exam: JN0-343)
This list provides a general view of the skill set required to successfully complete the specified certification exam. Topics listed are subject to change.

Layer 2 Switching and VLANs
Spanning Tree
Layer 2 Security
Protocol Independent Routing
Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Tunnels
High Availability

Layer 2 Switching and VLANs
Identify the concepts, operation, and functionality of Layer 2 switching for the Junos OS
Enterprise switching platforms
Bridging components
Frame processing
Identify the concepts, benefits, and functionality of VLANs
Ports
Tagging
Native VLANs and voice VLANs
Inter-VLAN routing
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot Layer 2 switching and VLANs
Interfaces and ports
VLANs
Routed VLAN interfaces (RVI)

Spanning Tree
Identify the concepts, benefits, operation, and functionality of the Spanning Tree Protocol
STP and RSTP concepts
Port roles and states
BPDUs
Convergence and reconvergence
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor STP and RSTP
STP
RSTP

Layer 2 Security
Identify the concepts, benefits and operation of various protection and security features
BPDU, loop and root protection
Port security, including MAC limiting, DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) and IP source guard
Storm control
Identify the concepts, benefits and operation of Layer 2 firewall filtres
Filter types
Processing order
Match criteria and actions
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor Layer 2 security
Protection
Port security
Storm control
Firewall filter configuration and application

Protocol Independent Routing
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of various protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Martian addresses
Routing instances, including RIB groups
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor various protocol-independent routing components
Static, aggregate, and generated routes
Load balancing
Filter-based forwarding

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of OSPF
Link-state database
OSPF packet types
Router ID
Adjacencies and neighbors
Designated router (DR) and backup designated router (BDR)
OSPF area and router types
LSA packet types
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot OSPF
Areas, interfaces and neighbors
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools

Intermediate System to Intermediate System (IS-IS)
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of IS-IS
Link-state database
IS-IS PDUs
TLVs
Adjacencies and neighbors
Levels and areas
Designated intermediate system (DIS)
Metrics
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure, monitor and troubleshoot IS-IS
Levels, interfaces and adjacencies
Additional basic options
Routing policy application
Troubleshooting tools

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Identify the concepts, operation and functionality of BGP
BGP basic operation
BGP message types
Attributes
Route/path selection process
IBGP and EBGP functionality and interaction
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor BGP
Groups and peers
Additional basic options
Routing policy application

Tunnels
Identify the concepts, requirements and functionality of IP tunneling
Tunneling applications and considerations
GRE
IP-IP
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor IP tunnels
GRE
IP-IP

High Availability
Identify the concepts, benefits, applications and requirements for high availability in a Junos OS environment
Link aggregation groups (LAG)
Redundant trunk groups (RTG)
Virtual Chassis
Graceful restart (GR)
Graceful Routing Engine switchover (GRES)
Nonstop active routing (NSR)
Nonstop bridging (NSB)
Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD)
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
Unified In-Service Software Upgrade (ISSU)
Demonstrate knowledge of how to configure and monitor high availability components
LAG and RTG
Virtual Chassis
GR, GRES, NSR, and NSB
VRRP
ISSU

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Exam Code: JN0-343

Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-ENT)

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Exam Code: SSCP

Exam Name: System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP)

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SSCP Real Questions Total Q&A: 1074 Questions and Answers

Last Update: 2016-10-30

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Exam Code: CSSLP

Exam Name: Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Practice Test

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CSSLP Braindumps Total Q&A: 349 Questions and Answers

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Exam Code: CISSP

Exam Name: Certified Information Systems Security Professional

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CISSP Practice Test Total Q&A: 373 Questions and Answers

Last Update: 2016-10-30

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SSCP Course Overview
Led by an (ISC)² authorized instructor, the Official (ISC)² SSCP CBK Training Seminar provides a comprehensive review of information security concepts and industry best practices, covering the 7 domains of the SSCP CBK:

Access Controls
Security Operations and Administration
Risk Identification, Monitoring, and Analysis
Incident Response and Recovery
Cryptography
Networks and Communications Security
Systems and Application Security
Several types of activities are used throughout the course to reinforce topics and increase knowledge retention. These activities include open ended questions from the instructor to the students, matching and poll questions, group activities, open/closed questions, and group discussions. This interactive learning technique is based on sound adult learning theories.

This training course will help candidates review and refresh their information security knowledge and help identify areas they need to study for the SSCP exam and features:

Official (ISC)² courseware
Taught by an authorized (ISC)² instructor
Student handbook
Collaboration with classmates
Real-world learning activities and scenarios

Who should attend?
This training course is intended for those with proven technical skills and practical, hand-on security knowledge in operational IT roles. The candiate is required to have a minimum of 1 year of cumulative paid full-time work experience in 1 of the 7 domains of the SSCP CBK. The training seminar is ideal for those working in positions such as, but not limited to:

Network Security Engineer
Systems/Network Administrator
Security Analyst
Systems Engineer
  
Security Consultant/Specialist
Security Administrator
Systems/Network Analyst
Database Administrator
 
Learning Objectives
Understand the different Access Control systems and how they should be implemented to protect the system and data using the different levels of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Understand the processes necessary for working with management and information owners, custodians, and users so that proper data classifications are defined. This will ensure the proper handling of all hard copy and electronic information as it is applied by the Security Operations and Administration
The Risk Identification, Monitoring, and Analysis Domain identifies the how to identify, measure, and control losses associated with adverse events. You will review, analyze, select, and evaluate safeguards for mitigating risk
Identify how to handle Incident Response and Recovery using consistent, applies approaches including the use of the Business Continuity Plan (BCP) and Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) concepts in order to mitigate damages, recover business operations, and avoid critical business interruption; and emergency response and post-disaster recovery
Identify and differentiate key cryptographic concepts and how to apply them, implement secure protocols, key management concepts, key administration and validation, and Public Key Infrastructure as it applies to securing communications in the presence of third parties
Define and identify the Networks and Communications Security needed to secure network structure, data transmission methods, transport formats, and the security measures used to maintain integrity, availability, authentication, and confidentiality of the information being transmitted
The Systems and Application Security section identifies and defines technical and non-technical attacks and how an organization can protect itself from these attacks including the concepts in endpoint device security, cloud infrastructure security, securing big data systems, and securing virtual environments

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Exam Code: CQE

Exam Name: Quality Engineer Exam

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Last Update: 2016-10-28

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Quality Engineer Certification - CQE
 
 
 
The Certified Quality Engineer is a professional who understands the principles of product and service quality evaluation and control. This body of knowledge and applied technologies include, but are not limited to, development and operation of quality control systems, application and analysis of testing and inspection procedures, the ability to use metrology and statistical methods to diagnose and correct improper quality control practices, an understanding of human factors and motivation, familiarity with quality cost concepts and techniques, and the knowledge and ability to develop and administer management information systems and to audit quality systems for deficiency identification and correction.

1. Is this the right certification for you?
Understand the minimum expectations, requirements, experience and the exam specifics for a Quality Engineer.

2. Prepare for the exam.
Review the Body of Knowledge and references. Take advantage of the study guide and sample exams. See what training and books ASQ has to offer.

3. Choose an exam date.
Find the best date and location for you. (Note the application deadlines for each exam date.)

4. Apply for certification.
ASQ offers several ways to apply. Have your résumé and credit card ready.

5. Recertify.
ASQ requires that you recertify as a Quality Engineer every three years - either by documenting RU credits or by testing.

Download the Quality Engineer Certification Brochure

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B. Detect an AP failure
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D. 1 day
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Exam Name: Aruba Certified Mobility Associate 6.3

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Exam Name: Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.4

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Exam Code: C-TCRM20-72

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - CRM Fundamentals with SAP CRM 7.0 EhP2

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Exam Code: C_AUDSEC_731

Exam Name: SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP Authorization and Auditing for SAP NetWeaver 7.31

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C_AUDSEC_731 Training Materials Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers

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Exam Code: C_BOBIP_40

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP BusinessObjects Business Intelligence Platform 4.0

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C_BOBIP_40 Exam PDF Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers

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A. PFCG
B. SM36
C. SA38
D. SU10
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following are components of SAP NetWeaver Identity Management?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.
A. Data Synchronization Engine
B. Identity Center
C. Virtual Directory Server
D. Central User Administration
E. Identity Services
Answer: A,B,C

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